I have an elderly female relative who had been on statins for decades. About 3 years ago, her cardiologist switched her to Crestor. (She had no idea why the switch was made. ) She is not one to read side-effects for drugs or ask a lot of questions in a doc’s office. She just filled the prescription. She was not dieting at the time and was obese, but not morbidly so.
Shortly thereafter, she developed pronounced muscle weakness. ( I visited from out of state and was shocked to see she really had to push up with her arms to rise from a chair. That was entirely new.) She went to the doctor (not sure if primary or neurologist or cardiologist at first b/c she didn’t know it was the meds) and was taken off the Crestor, but told by either the neuro or the cardiologist that there was nothing that could be done to improve muscle weakness because she was in her 80s—that something could have been done if she were in her 60s.
Dr. Google can tell me little about this problem. I do not recall her saying there was muscle pain, just muscle weakness/atrophy that is supposedly permanent. (As I said, the actual muscle weakness was quite apparent and the onset was acute.)
In the last 2 years, she’s lost weight by dieting and is no longer obese, just slightly overweight in lower body. Family members have tried in vain to get her to increase her protein intake ( I think it’s actually less than .8 per kg) and to do something to strengthen her muscles. She has a firm belief that nothing can be done. She has had several falls and has lost mobility. Needs to use a walker (doesn’t always do it.) So this has had a major effect.
Is there such a thing as permanent muscle weakness from a statin? And is it true (I am doubting it) that being in her 80s means it cannot be improved? This doesn’t quite add up to me, but I am concerned for the likelihood that she is increasing her probability of severe disability.