The rabbit hole of pain science allowed me to stumble upon the condition congenital analgesia and I was struggling with the context based on my understanding of the biopsychosocial model.
My understanding of congenital analgesia is that it is based on a type of neuropathy, which would prevent the pain signals from being realized at the expected site (such as a cut on the hand). If someone with this condition has never felt the sensation of pain, does that mean the trigger is still being sent from the brain and not realized at the site due to neuropathy or since the sensation of pain has never been felt there is no precedence for any pain response? If someone can experience phantom pain in a limb they do not have, then no nerves does not seem that different from neuropathy. This makes me think that while neuropathy is present, there is also no referenced pain response, so the -psychosocial part of biopsychosocial seems to have no precedence here. So if this is purely a biological issue due to the neuropathy, where exactly is that breakdown in the chain of the brain mapping/pain signaling?