Jordan and Austin:
A quick thanks for all the incredible information you provide and for the direction that you’re taking health care. Hope to attend a seminar soon.
I’m a 50 year old male. Was recently diagnosed with a tear of the rotator cuff in my left shoulder. Can’t bench without significant pain. Overhead press is very limited too. Here’s the diagnosis language:
Focal, rim rent type partial-thickness articular surface tear of the supraspinatus is noted extending from the footprint. This measures approximately 7 mm in cross-section x 8 mm longitudinally. Findings are on the background of mild supraspinatus tendinosis. Mild focal tendinosis is noted of the subscapularis at the footprint.
The teres minor is unremarkable.
There is no rotator cuff muscle atrophy.
There is mild amount of fluid in the subacromial, subdeltoid bursa.
Acromial morphology is flat. There is no os acromiale. There is mild acromioclavicular joint osteoarthrosis. The coracohumeral distance is normal.
The labrum is not optimally evaluated on this nonarthrographic study; however, is grossly unremarkable.
The long head of the biceps tendon is located in the bicipital groove and appears intact.
There is no evidence for an osseous Bankart or Hill-Sachs abnormality.
Question: I keep going back and forth over whether to get surgery or not. Any advice?
Thanks.
Keith